So, the data I have available for comparison is all from private companies, meaning I can't divulge names and details due to SEC and FINRA regulations. Public companies would just issue an unsecured (no collateral) bond and be done with it. Collateralized loans are more common and help a company obtain a lower interest rate than an unsecured line of credit would. The loan agreements I have all state LIBOR/US Prime Rate plus 0.5% to 1.0%.
Last year, CIG was owed a tax credit of £3,319,220. 2015 was £3,115,774, so I'll just average it to about £3,200,000 for simplicity. Now, CIG could be sending this over from the US, but the exchange rate over the past year has been all over the place, to the tune of .75 to .82 GBP per USD converted. Note that this conversion rate means the lower ratio is, the weaker the Dollar is to the Pound. Rather than risk losing money to a volatile conversion, F42 opted to take the advance on their tax credit and minimize the loss.
(It occurred to me, that my original example is more a systemic issue with accounting at my bank, because front office people like to book GBP transactions in a US denominated computer system. So, while this explanation works on my end since I'm the one going in to fix it almost every week it doesn't reflect the economics of the transaction. Bear with me while I flesh out the exchange rate gain/loss piece and work at the same time. See clarification at the end)
Edit 3: Going back and looking at it, the interest rate is a base of 0.25% plus 2% for 2.25%, so the interest would be £72,000. Either way, a high-interest/risk loan is classified as 5% or above, so Derek is lying through his teeth on that one.
Clarification on exhange gains/losses: Let's get down to the nitty gritty and revisit my comment on the volatility of the USD/GBP exchange rate. This pertains to cash and equivalents held in foreign subsidiaries. The exchange gain/loss is a way to track the change in value of cash in hand versus your home currency, assuming you don't spend it.
More assumptions: We are only dealing with the £3,200,000 and F42 holds onto it through 6/23.
Let's look at a simple example. Let's say CIG gives F42 all the cash it needs at the beginning of the year.
CIG gives F42 the cash upfront at 1/1. The conversion rate at 1/1 was 0.81, so they would transfer $3,950,617 over to F42 for £3,200,000. No loss would be recognized, since they are still holding the cash. If they turned it back around on Jan 1, they could still get $3,950,617.28. On 6/23, the conversion rate is .79, so that's an exchange loss of 0.02 per dollar. CIG would report an exchange loss of ($3,950,617-$4,050,633) = $100,016 on cash held, or £79,012.64.
So, looking at the interest of £72,000 from Edit 3, it seems pretty close. So why take the loan?
Look at the how much the pound has moved in just the last year. CIG isn't giving F42 all of their cash at the beginning of the year, they are most likely giving it on a monthly basis, which means the conversion rate is all over the place, while the F42 operating expenses would be relatively flat. No company wants that kind of uncertainty, especially with Brexit in full swing. It's better to lock in a fixed rate on your (relatively) fixed expenses. Still a no-brainer. The pound is still stronger than the dollar.