Quick question, currently taking Abstract Algebra and need some help with notation.
"For each element a ∈ G, there exists an inverse element in G, denoted by a^−1, such that
a ◦ a^−1 = a^−1 ◦ a = e."
What does the e represent in this context? Is it the identity element which is essentially 1?
Cool thanks! : )Yep, you're right.
Can anyone help with this?
Question is; A rancher with 900 ft of fencing wants to enclose a rectangular area and then divide it into four pens with fencing parallel to one side of the rectangle. The problem wants you to solve for area in terms of W and for some reason I keep getting it incorrect and I'm at a loss as to why.
-Okay, so my thought process is this; A(rea) = L * W and P(erimeter) = 2L + 2W but in this situation, 900 = 5L + 2W.
(900 - 2W)/5 = L -------------> ok, so now you would substitute this into the Area formula and get A= (180 - 2/5 W)(W) or 180W -2/5W^2. I thought that this was correct but for some reason it keeps saying it's wrong. Any advice?
Looks right. Are you sure you are inputting correctly i.e. making sure it's (2/5)*(w^2) rather than 2/(5*(w^2))? Could also try 900 = 2L + 5W.
-5/2(w-180)w is listed as the correct answer. It makes little sense to me. I have an idea of why the answer looks like that but when I try to go through why it looks like that, it makes less and less sense to me.
Really simple question.
Trying to find limit of X ----> 1^(+) of the function square root (2x+1) - square root(3)/x-1
I am looking at the solution and unable to grasp going from (2x+1)-3/(x-1)(square root(2x+1)+square root (3))
to 2/(square root(2x+1)+square root (3)
How exactly are we getting to the latter? I'm sure I'm forgetting something basic here.
Are the magnitudes of all uncountable sets equal? I had a problem on an assignment that I couldn't figure out without making an assumption like that.
Although not a direct answer to your questions, this guy's videos got me an A in both Calc I and Calc II(his calc III videos weren't out when i took it): https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLF797E961509B4EB5
Although not a direct answer to your questions, this guy's videos got me an A in both Calc I and Calc II(his calc III videos weren't out when i took it): https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLF797E961509B4EB5
Not in general, no. For example, the set of all functions from R to R, and the set R itself are both uncountable. But the first is larger (in the usual sense that there is no injection from the first set to the second).
However, if you are working within some smaller universal set, you may be okay. For example, if you are only looking at subsets of the real numbers then every uncountable set has the same cardinality.
Although not a direct answer to your questions, this guy's videos got me an A in both Calc I and Calc II(his calc III videos weren't out when i took it): https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLF797E961509B4EB5
Do you know what topics I should study for integral calculus? My calculus coursework is a bit abnormal. My first calc. class was applied calc. Now I'm doing integral calc. I'm pretty sure my applied calc. class covered everything but trig. functions. Whats stumbling me now is finding the limits and integrals of trig functions. I took my last calc. class around two years ago, so I'm not used to any calculus terminology.
There's nothing different about limits of trigonometric functions. After all, trig functions are just functions.
It's just that limits of certain functions can be interesting to study (e.g. as x approaches 0, sin(x) / x approaches 1, instead of being undefined).
The three problems that you posted previously are based on these. You may want to brush up on L'Hopital's Rule.
Integration of polynomials uses formulas for finite sums, so you will study sequences and series.
You will then use limits to extend the sum of finite terms to infinite terms (Riemann integration).
This is how you can arrive at integration rules for polynomials.
Does anyone have any recommendations for learning Introductory Statistics? I have to take this course for my first year of Software Engineering (2nd year of Engineering). Going by online reviews and how he was in my first lecture, it does not seem like my professor will be of much help. The textbook for the course is "Weighing the Odds: A Course in Probability and Statistics" by David Williams. Going by the reviews for the book and reading some of the first sections, it seems to be complicated and not the best book for an Introductory Statistics course. I believe Calculus is also used in this Statistics course.
I hope my knowledge from my Data and Probability course that I took in grade 12 is helpful.
What do you mean by Intro Stats? I teach a Stats for Non-Math course, which sounds easier than what you're doing, but you're in engineering. The engineering intro stats class at my university would cover calculus in statistics, so you may just have to get comfortable with it.
Let A be a set with n+1 elements. So |A| = n+1. All elements of A are integers that range from 1 to 2n, inclusively. Prove by mathematic induction that there exists two elements, a and b, such that a divides b for all n > 0
So this is what we did.
Base Case:
n = 1. A = {1, 2}. 1 divides 2
Inductive Hypothesis:
Assume |A| = k+1, k > 0. Assume there exists two elements of A, a and b, such that a divides b.
Inductive Step:
*This is where we don't do what is expected*
Pigeon Hole Proof:
|B| = (k + 1) + 1. All elements of B are integers that are between 1 and 2(k+1), inclusively.
It can be proven fairly trivially with the Pigeon Hole Principle that there exists two elements, a and b, such that a divides b. This proof does not use the inductive hypothesis.
So technically, we proved P(1) is true, and that P(k) -> P(k+1), k > 0. Which is technically an inductive proof.
No, I would say that's not an inductive proof. You should also explain how the Pigeonhole Principle can be applied, rather than saying the proof is trivial.
To be precise, let me formulate the statement as follows:
P: Let n be a positive integer. For any set A with (n + 1) numbers between 1 and 2n, there exist two elements a, b from the set, such that a divides b.
You already showed the base case, so let me jump to the proof P=> P(n + 1):
Suppose Pis true. We want to show that P(n + 1) is also true, so consider a set A with (n + 2) numbers between 1 and (2n + 2).
Now, there are 3 possibilities:
1. Set A contains (n + 2) numbers between 1 and 2n.
2. Set A contains (n + 1) numbers between 1 and 2n, and 1 number that is either (2n + 1) or (2n + 2).
3. Set A contains n numbers between 1 and 2n, and both (2n + 1) and (2n + 2).
In cases 1 and 2, we can use the inductive hypothesis Pto conclude that P(n + 1) is true.
You just have to prove case 3---maybe by Pigeonhole Principle, I didn't try.
Why is it okay to only use the inductive hypothesis for the first two cases but not the third?
Probably a long shot, but just in case anyone is familiar with this...
Regarding hom and tensor functors I'm trying to compute the tensor product of a vector space V with itself over Hom(V,V) (the set of linear transformations from V to V, which has the structure of a ring). If V = F the base field, it's easy to see that the product is just F. What if it's n-dimensional, say V isomorphic to F^n? I'm trying to find basis elements for this product and I supsect they're of the form V x V, but I don't think I can just say the product is F^{2n} since obviously that contradicts what I found for n =1..
And I guess what I'm saying is the proof for case 3 can also be used for case 1 and case 2. I guess I feel like this is an odd problem for trying to teach mathematic induction. Here's a similar problem.The inductive hypothesis Pis true if we have (n + 1) numbers between 1 and 2n.
In case 3, there are only n numbers between 1 and 2n, so we couldn't use the hypothesis to prove P(n + 1). We would have to prove case 3 by different means.
And I guess what I'm saying is the proof for case 3 can also be used for case 1 and case 2. I guess I feel like this is an odd problem for trying to teach mathematic induction.
I didn't study functors, but wouldn't the product be more like F^{n^2}?
The way you described hom functors as linear maps from V to V reminded me of matrices, and n x n matrices can be thought of as vectors with n^2 entries. You could then use the idea of how basis for matrices are derived/defined to come up with basis for your tensor product.
Hey, I just started learning linear algebra and I have a question in regards to identifying if a homogeneous system has one or infinite solutions. Today we were told that in homogeneous systems where there are more unknowns than equations, there will be infinite solutions.
The problem is, there wasn't any explanation as to what happens in regards to all zero rows. Do I count those when determining if a system of linear equations has infinite solutions.
An example (just random numbers tossed in RREF but I'm more curious about the theory):
_ _
| 1 0 0 0 | 0 |
| 0 1 0 0 | 0 |
| 0 0 1 1 | 0 |
|_0 0 0 0 | 0_|
Would you include the bottom row in determining the number of solutions, or would you ignore it?
Also, is there any easy way to determine if there would be 1 or infinite solutions in non-homogenous systems? I'm confused in regards to this as the prof brushed it off so quickly. He apparently is quizzing us on this tomorrow but even after studying it wasn't mentioned in the textbook.
Sorry for the double post.
Are these two equivalent?
-For some x P(x) or for some x Q(x)
-For some x (P(x) or Q(x))
Thanks I think I got it.The easiest way is to just test the permutations. Suppose there is some x such that P(x) and some x such that Q(x). The first statement is true, the second statement is also true (assuming the or is not an exclusive or). Suppose there is some x such that P(x), but no x such that Q(x). The first statement is true, the second statement is true. The same holds for there being Q(x) but no P(x). Finally, suppose there is no x such that either P(x) or Q(x). Then both statements are false. For all possible permutations, both statements are equivalent.
Note that this does assume the ors are inclusive, not exclusive.
This wouldn't work if it was and instead of or in this case - there might be some x such that P(x), and some different x such that Q(x), but no x such that both P(x) and Q(x).
Thanks I think I got it.
5,200,000,000 / 9.4118 = 48,941,360,000
Edit: Is Q = 23,505 the correct answer?