Dropped_Off
Neo Member
It seems to me like its more along the lines of considering its a bijective function. Something simple:
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C union D could be empty, or not. The inverse function of C could be A, and inverse function of D could be B.
inverseF(C - D) = inverse F(C) - inverse F(D)
Assume RHS then prove LHS, then reverse.
A not in B = A not in B
Maybe I'm confusing the use of the "-" operator.
That could work too, considering for a function to have an inverse it needs to be bijective, and it would be best to assume finite sets to help further the point.
Thinking about it a bit more, you could just use a proof by contradiction. That if F: X -> Y then F^-1: Y -> X. So, F(C -D) must be an element of X. Although I can't recall if a function has an inverse, whether it is a linear transform or not.
Edit: Yeah, just saying it's a bijective function is basically enough to prove it all.