Thanks for the detailed explanation. I kind of understand the gist of it, but parts are beyond my understanding.
I'm not quite sure what the jacobian is (change of variables for triple integrals?), nor am I familiar with the term map (I gather it's like an "image" for matrix equations?).
My bad, a map and a function mean the same thing. They are a rule that assigns an element x from one set to an element y from another set. We say that y is the image of x under that rule.
(If you have a matrix equation Ax = y, then the vector y is the image of the vector x. We see that matrices are a map, but they are also a special one, in that the map is
linear.)
Below, I'll use the word function for clarity.
I gave the expression (dy/dx)(x) a name so that the theorem will sound more intimate and be easier to remember. The expression in 1D happens to be, in general, the Jacobian of the function.
The Jacobian has a nice geometric interpretation and appears whenever we do a change of variable, but let's just go back to your original problem to see how the inverse function theorem can be used.
----
Consider the differential equation y'(x) = f(x), which holds for all x in (a, b).
We assume that the solution y and its derivative y' are continuous functions, i.e. y is C^1(a, b), and that the RHS function f is "nice"---nothing crazy happens. This makes the differential equation well-defined.
But suppose that this equation is too hard to solve for y(x) by integration.
Could we perhaps rewrite the equation in terms of the inverse function x

, solve the new equation for the inverse function, and invert this to get y(x) back?
If the function y happens to be invertible at a point x, then we would have the following equation by the definition of the inverse:
y( x

) = y.
(The LHS may look confusing, but it just says, if we plug the point y into the inverse function to get the point x and plug that into the original function, we will get the point y back.)
Furthermore, if the function y is invertible for all points near x, then we could differentiate the equation above with respect to y. By the chain rule,
y'( x

) * x'

= 1.
We now see why we want the Jacobian y'(x) to be not zero. If it isn't zero, then we have a definition for x'

, the derivative of the inverse function, at the point y:
x'

= 1 / y'( x

).
Let us go back to the differential equation:
y'(x) = f(x), for all x in (a, b).
Assuming f(x) is also not zero in the interval (a, b), we can take the reciprocal of both sides to get,
1 / y'(x) = 1 / f(x), for all x in (a, b).
If the inverse function exists---by now, all the assumptions of the inverse function theorem are met---then,
1 / y'( x

) = 1 / f( x

), for all y in (c, d).
Finally, we substitute x'

for 1 / y'( x

) to get,
x'

= 1 / f( x

), for all y in (c, d).
This is the new differential equation that we would solve to get the inverse function x

. Whether it's easier to solve this equation and to invert the inverse function is another story.
Note that, because y' is continuous and the Jacobian is never zero in (a, b), the function y is always increasing or always decreasing.
Hence, we know the values of c and d from the boundary conditions (BCs). They are c = min(y(a), y(b)) and d = max(y(a), y(b)). The BCs for the new differential equation are x(c) = a and x(d) = b.