gerg said:
True, but you needn't believe the manner in which the Bible tells you this happens.
Do we accept that the Fall of Man is, at its core, man's movement from general obedience with God to one where he is generally disobedient? If that is its core, then it can occur with or without Adam.
I'm not actually convinced by this, although, to be honest, I'm not sure what you mean by the statement either.
[Edit: So at the heart of Jesus' death is that man, somehow, had fallen and that Jesus' somehow died for such sins. (I apologise, my knowledge of Christian teaching isn't very strong.)]
I find Genesis' account interesting because it shows Man with free will, and this is important. Man is told not to eat that specific fruit and then disobeys. As a result, the serpent (Satan) is cursed and man is punished with enmity between them (and their children), women will suffer pain in childbirth, husbands shall rule over wives, the land is cursed and banishment from the Garden. As a result, we inherited the tendency to sin and burden the consequences of Adam and Eve's disobedience. If it was allegorical, then God is working on the presumption that man will disobey him, and will sin regardless. This undermines the theme of free will apparent in the original Genesis account. If God created man to sin, and therefore punished him for it, then what is left of original sin? Saying this is allegorical is quite different to Augustine's idea that the "light" and "darkness" were metaphorical (and literal). It appears to be an event. As a result some believe that the garden was in heaven (e.g. not on Earth so as to reconcile this with the theory of evolution) yet Eden is described as literal in the Genesis, with descriptions of the river watering it splitting to different directions (e.g. Euphrates). Where is the allegory here?
Genesis continues with Eve beginning a lineage, with Cain and Abel and then their families and those families having their own etc. So if Eve was a symbol, then is the following lineage entirely an allegory itself? It's interesting because, regardless of Eve and Adam, you still have Cain and Abel - and if you disregard them, you have to deal with the individuals that are said to be their direct descendants and we have a situation where you have one or two people, a pair, whose existence cannot be dismissed as symbolic as you may do with the fall of man story. Enoch and the rest have no symbolism, yet they are listed, so it suggests they were literal.
A question that has to be asked whilst we're on this subject is that, if we're talking symbolism, then almost every event and indeed every figure in the Bible can be seen as allegorical; the story of Moses, for example, is a popular narrative of God's sheer power on Earth. Jesus Christ' miracles (as I alluded to earlier) can be rationalised (as some do, dismissing them as symbolism). A priest said to me that "your belief in Christianity won't be based on your views on whether a man can survive in a whale for three days", suggesting that some do not. But I respond that no one would deny it, perhaps question it, but they could not fail to the possibility that it was a divine event.
Not every event need be an allegory when you have God in the equation.
Do we accept that the Fall of Man is, at its core, man's movement from general obedience with God to one where he is generally disobedient? If that is its core, then it can occur with or without Adam.
I think this would only work, as I said, if an event that showed this move to disobedience occurred. Some of the details of the story may be allegorical, but the core of it must have happened. If it was just purely a story, and it was made up (all of it), then there is no original sin. If there is an alternative explanation, let me know.