1.) Sorry for the double post. I wanted to make sure you guys knew I posted a response. Note that I've added in my response to Mgoblue201's second post in the post above this one.
2.) I won't be able to answer your responses for about three weeks, so don't fret when you don't hear from me.
And with that out of the way:
jdogmoney said:
Because that's what morality is. How you act.
My moral code is strong. It does not derive from God. I may have come to a few of the same conclusions as God's alleged moral code, but that doesn't mean my standards are inherently part of His.
Morality is not how you act. Morality is how you
ought to act. Why ought not a person violate the social contract? or why ought not a person do that which you consider a "dick move"?
As for God's morality, assume that God exists and that His commands concerning morality are purely arbitrary. Now assume that He created the entire universe, and that the universe would not be able to continue existing for even a moment without His continued will that it exist. Now imagine that you die and come face to face with that God, to be judged according to some standard of morality. Do you think He'll use His, or yours, or someone else's? This thought exercise should show that, assuming God exists, His morality is inherently more relevant than anyone else's. (Now, assume that He judges you using your moral code. How do you stack up? Have you, do you, and will you continue to always do only that which you think is right? If not, you fail even under the far lower standard of your own morality.)
Regarding your own moral code, I don't see what that has to do with the existence of an objective moral code that has God's commands as its basis. The existence of your independent moral code does not indicate the non-existence of an objective moral code that yours may be contrary to, any more than the color-blind individual's failure to distinguish between red and green indicates that the existence of such distinction is a fiction.
jdogmoney said:
Well, if we're going that route, Hitler was a Roman Catholic. George Bush said God told him to invade Iraq. Osama bin Laden something something 9/11.
I cannot recollect a single war that was started in the name of atheism.
[I think that's rather a false comparison; surely you would fear that same "God said to kill you" guy a lot more if he had political power.]
Was Hitler a Roman Catholic? This guy isn't so sure:
Richard Dawkins said:
It is possible that Hitler had by 1941 experienced some kind of deconversion or disillusionment with Christianity. Or is the resolution of the contradictions simply that he was an opportunistic liar whose words cannot be trusted, in either direction?
Here's Wikipedia on
Hitler's religion. I would place Bush in the same "opportunistic liar" category that Dawkins suggests for Hitler, as with most politicians. For obvious reasons the bin Laden reference is irrelevant.
I can't think of any wars started in the name of atheism, either, but this is hardly relevant. The historical evidence simply doesnt support fearing religious rulers as much as atheist rulers. Religious rulers have ruled nations for thousands of years; Christian rulers for at least 1600, yet nowhere do we see the kind of consistent and mass killings such as we find perpetrated by state atheists. Lets compare the death tolls from a few state atheist regimes (as listed by
Wikipedia) and, say, the
Spanish Inquisition, the latter of which we can almost certainly regard as having been perpetrated by people who believed they were doing Gods work:
U.S.S.R. (1917 1987): 28.3 million (404,286)
Peoples Republic of China (1949 1987): 6 million (157,895)
North Korea (1948 1987): 710,000 (18,205)
Cambodia (1975 1979): 635,000 (158,750)
Pedalcyclists killed in traffic crashes (1932 2008): 53,000 (697)
Cuba (1959 1987): 35,000 (1,250)
Albania (1944 1987): 25,000 (581)
Mexico (1920 1929): 5,000 (556)
Spanish Inquisition (1540 1700): 5,000 (31)
A few notes about the above: Ive selected the nations and time periods based on the Wikipedia articles. The death tolls are the
low estimates for each of the state atheist nations. The numbers are remarkably low for a number of the nations. More recent estimatesand the ones relied on by Rummel on his
main pagehave the U.S.S.R. at 62 million for 1917 1987, China at 76 million for 1949 1987, and North Korea at 1.6 million for 1948 to 1987. The Spanish Inquisition statistic is the
highest listed estimate provided by Wikipedia. Listed beside each of the above is the average annual death toll. Ive inserted the number of pedalcyclists killed in the U.S. as a useful comparison. Those statistics are from
here.
Given all of the above, your argument that one should more fear someone in power who believes God is telling him to kill someone rings pretty hollow. The fear of an atheist in power is clearly more justified by the historical data than the similar fear of a religious individual in power. (At least on the basis of the Spanish Inquisition, which is often cited as the worst of the Church's abuses.)
jdogmoney said:
HOLD IT!.jpg
I think this is stepping around the real issue, here, and it's certainly obscuring the point I wanted to make, way back.
The point is, if your God said "Go kill jdogmoney." and you knew for a fact he was God, which you do in this hypothetical, you would. You'd have to! The greatest sin is going against God's will. If you refused out of a fondness for my whimsical charms, you and all of your descendants for the rest of time would be cursed. You would have to kill me, for the sake of your children and your children's children. You see, this terrifies the fuck out of me.
First of all, I know what point you were trying to make, and I know what question you asked. The only thing obscuring the former was the latter, and I can't be blamed for that.
Second, I can see where your terror comes from, but that is a misunderstanding of Christianity. "The greatest sin" is not "going against God's will." Going against God's will is the
definition of sin. In fact, even if I knew that God told me to kill you, and I refused, neither I nor my descendants (for any of time) would therefor be cursed. "Therefore, there is now no condemnation for those who are in Christ Jesus." (Romans 8:1). This was written by a man who is first introduced in the New Testament holding the coats of those who stoned Stephen for the crime of being a Christian (Acts 7:58). Paul (then Saul) was deeply involved the persecution of Christians (Acts 9:1 - 2), yet God was able to forgive his sins because of Christ's sacrifice. It's difficult to think of something that would more strongly go against God's will than the persecution of His chosen people. Paul wrote of himself, "Here is a trustworthy saying that deserves full acceptance: Christ Jesus came into the world to save sinners--of whom I am the worst. But for that very reason I was shown mercy so that in me, the worst of sinners, Christ Jesus might display his unlimited patience as an example for those who would believe on him and receive eternal life." (1 Tim. 1:15 - 16). In sum, even if God told me to kill you, and I was certain that it was God, and everyone in the world concurred that God had told me to kill you--even if you yourself agreed--but I didn't kill you, I wouldn't be condemned therefor. It would probably be a poor choice, since you would then likely turn out to be some kind of serial killer or something, but it wouldn't affect my salvation, because salvation is not earned, but given freely. (Eph. 2: 8 - 9)
jdogmoney said:
I think you've misunderstood this discussion. The question is whether there can be an objective morality if there is no God. Assuming that Christianity is true, there is an objective morality--a morality that exists whether anyone believes in it or not. Assuming that atheism is true, can it be said that there is an objective morality? If not, then "the Christian therefore absolutely has a stronger claim to an objective morality than the atheist."
jdogmoney said:
Secondly, if God = Jesus, then his nature sure as hell (ha) does change.
Keeping in mind that the following is in the context of the above statement:
jdogmoney said:
Encouraged?
jdogmoney said:
complete eradication of peoples
"The present heavens and earth are reserved for fire, being kept for the day of judgment and destruction of ungodly men." 2 Pet. 3:7
"Whoever does not believe stands condemned already because he has not believed in the name of God's one and only Son." John 3:18
jdogmoney said:
the destruction of Sodom and Gomorrah
"'If anyone will not welcome you or listen to your words, shake the dust off your feet when you leave that home or town. I tell you the truth, it will be more bearable for Sodom and Gomorrah on the day of judgment than for that town. . . . And you, Capernaum, will you be lifted up to the skies? No, you will go down to the depths. If the miracles that were performed in you had been performed in Sodom, it would have remained to this day. But I tell you that it will be more bearable for Sodom on the day of judgment than for you.'" (Matt. 10: 14 - 15; 11: 23 - 24)
jdogmoney said:
I mean, look at Leviticus 19:15 ("In righteousness shalt thou judge thy neighbor.") and Matthew 7:1 ("Judge not, that ye be not judged.")
Context: "Do not pervert justice; do not show partiality to the poor or favoritism to the great, but judge your neighbor fairly." (Leviticus 19:15)
"'Do not judge, or you too will be judged. For in the same way you judge others, you will be judged, and with the measure you use, it will be measured to you. Why do you look at the speck of sawdust in your brother's eye and pay no attention to the plank in your own eye? How can you say to your brother, "Let me take the speck out of your eye," when all the time there is a plank in your own eye? You hypocrite, first take the plank out of your own eye, and then you will see clearly to remove the speck from your brother's eye.'" (Matt. 7:1 - 5)
It seems to me that these two verses, which you implied were contradictory, are in fact saying the exact same thing. Christ even states that once you have taken the "plank out of your own eye," you can successfully "remove the speck from your brother's eye"--i.e., judge him.
Mgoblue201 said:
Internal consistency does not make something logically coherent. It only means that you're observing proper form. Besides, I can't logically conclude that an idea lacking in thousands of years of theological basis isn't just an excuse by you to absolve a clear logical problem?
Here is what an excuse would be: "I don't have to address that argument because it isn't thousands of years old." Here's another: "This argument is, safe to say, philosophical masturbation." Review my posts, and review your posts. Do you see anything like that somewhere?
Mgoblue201 said:
If it's the latter, then he might as well judge us all right now.
Say that God did judge us all right now. What would be the effect? Assuming Christianity is true, the effect would be that those who have placed their faith in Christ as an atonement for their sins will be saved, and those who have not will be condemned. It only makes sense for God to judge us all right now if
the present arrangement of Christians and non-Christians will not change in the future. To make this point more clearly, consider what would be the result if God had judged the world 100 years ago: all of the individuals who are saved today, and who were not alive 100 years ago, would not have been saved, because they would never have existed.
You seem to assume that God has predestined individuals, but like one guy said earlier in this thread:
Metaphoreus said:
Foreknowledge is not the same as predestination.
God's knowledge of what a person will choose is based on that person's actual choice. That knowledge is contingent. As I said earlier, "His middle knowledge of all true counterfactual propositions (such as that 'If X were in circumstance C, then he would freely do action A.') This knowledge is contingent on the actual choice of X; if X would actually freely do action B in Circumstance C, then God would know that he would freely do action B in Circumstance C, rather than A." By cutting time short, and judging "us all" now, God would only judge those of us who are alive or have lived--He could not judge those who do not yet exist, because they don't exist and so couldn't have chosen anything.
Mgoblue201 said:
Otherwise, if you're saying that this bizarre logic with no proof could be true, then you're almost saying that anything can be true.
There are only two times when "almost" matters, and this is neither of those times. I would also disagree with your assertion, given my prior comments to which you are referring.
Mgoblue201 said:
Theology, as it has been said many times, truly is the naked emperor. By potentially wearing any imaginary clothes, it's actually wearing nothing. I could put on a thousand different theologies, each one affecting who I am and how I act. God, then, is truly unknowable because even the most basic tenets of theology are guess work. Some people are creationists. Some people are theistic evolutionists. Some people believe in eternal hell. Some don't. Some believe in free will. Others don't. The truth is completely obfuscated.
First, no one that isn't you said anything about "any." And when you said that, you were incorrect.
Second, given that X and not-X cannot both be true, the logical conclusion is that some of those views are incorrect, and others (perhaps) are correct, but that at the very least, not both are correct. The illogical conclusion, which you have modeled so effectively, is that because you don't know whether X or not-X is true, Q--a more important concept to which X/not-X is an incidental fact--cannot be known. You may as well say: "Some people believe thunder is the sound of angels bowling. Some people believe that thunder is the sound of air rushing to fill the vacuum left after a lightning strike. The truth is obfuscated." Or you could say: "Some people believe that Hitler was a Roman Catholic. Some people believe that he was an opportunistic liar. Therefore, World War II will forever be a mystery."
Mgoblue201 said:
The Molinism explanation is, safe to say, nothing more than philosophical masturbation. The idea that god creates people in certain places based on whether or not they would believe is pretty intellectually elastic, but this is just untenable. Why create non-believers amongst believers anyway? Why create the African tribesmen and then make the missionaries go where they could be killed, when he can just put them from birth in a position to believe?
I wrote that Gods middle knowledge is knowledge of all true counterfactuals, such as that If X were in circumstance C, then he would freely do action A. You are asking me why, if God knows that X would do A in circumstance C, God didnt simply create X in circumstance D? But we arent talking about D, and Xs choice may well have been completely different in D than in C, meaning that God would gain nothing by creating a world where X is in D rather than in C.
Mgoblue201 said:
It goes back to the same fundamental problem. Purpose becomes absolutely indistinguishable from chance events.
Purpose needn't be distinguishable from chance events. As I said at the outset, this idea is not meant as proof of God's existence. I'm not saying, "Molinism. Therefore God exists." You seem to be missing this because you apparently can't imagine a discussion where God's existence is assumed for the sake of the discussion. It's as if someone said, "How do you reconcile God's existence with donuts?", and you chimed in, "Donuts are made by bakers, therefore they do not prove God's existence."
Nobody cares. We aren't talking about whether something
proves God's existence, but how it is that some specific idea's truth doesn't
necessitate the falsity of some other specific idea.
Mgoblue201 said:
The definition is just a definition, and none of them touch upon who a person actually is. It obviously won't draw out its own metaphysical implications. Just existing isn't good enough because a rock can exist. Life doesn't work either. A bacteria has life. A personality, a person? No, there are six billion of those in the world. There has to be something more to define an individual in relationship to being. If everything that makes me who I am is altered, then how could I be the same being? If I'm someone else with totally different qualities, then how can I make similar choices?
You asked for a definition of "being" that was not contingent on material existence. I gave you seven. That they do not define "person" is irrelevant, since "person" is clearly narrower than "being." A rock is, under (b)(ii), a being, but is not a "person." In any event, I think that the word you're looking for is "person," not "being," when you say, "If everything that makes me who I am is altered, then how could I be the same being?" And, obviously, that's a silly counterfactual, since if everything that makes you who you are was altered, then you would not exist, since your existence is one thing that makes you who you are.
Mgoblue201 said:
One sin condemned all men. It's the same thing. I'm condemned regardless of what I did.
It's hardly the same thing at all. On the one hand, a sinless person would be condemned; on the other, a sinless person would not be condemned. Only if a sinless person would be condemned could anyone even assert a claim of injustice, and even then only the sinless person would be justified in even asserting it.
Mgoblue201 said:
If there is no one who would ever not sin, then I blame God, because it can't be a choice if everyone does the exact same thing.
To demonstrate how false this is, consider the following real-life example. I was discussing with some acquaintances whether or not God exists. We assumed on the one hand that He did, and on the other that He did not, and tried to figure out the consequences of each assumption. I made a statement that took as its premise God's existence, and one fellow responded thus:
Dani said:
Another responded thus:
jdogmoney said:
Firstly, :lol. If it's an objective morality, everyone has the same claim.
Finally, later in the discussion, yet a third individual said this: "He said a non-existent deity should be placed above your own family," clearly showing that he was like the other two in failing to delineate sufficiently between assumptions. Now, did those three fellows have a choice in making this fundamental error, or does the fact that they did
the exact same thing preclude that possibility?
I never argued, and I doubt anyone else would argue, that Christians believe that all individuals do "the exact same thing." There are many ways to sin, so everyone could be condemned for a completely different act compared with every other person, and they would not have chosen to do the exact same thing as everyone--or anyone--else.
Mgoblue201 said:
According to classical theology, angels have individual choices whether or not to disobey, but not humans for whatever reason.
Angels and humans
do both have choices as to whether to disobey or not. The fact that there exist in Christianity fallen angels shows that that is the case. The difference is that angels are not descended from one couple that brought down the whole universe with their sin. ("At the resurrection people will neither marry nor be given in marriage; they will be like the angels in heaven." Matt. 22:30). The other difference is that humans have the opportunity to choose again, after having chosen incorrectly. Angels do not. Even assuming that a human could not live a sinless life (or was condemned merely because of Adam's sin), I think I'd prefer the availability of forgiveness for my transgressions over an ability to not transgress with no hope of salvation if I ever did.
Mgoblue201 said:
It's right there in the bible.
Right there! In Mgoblue 2:01! Right freaking
there!
Mgoblue201 said:
It doesn't matter if Jesus ordered the persecuted to flee in this one circumstance.
Let's not forget why that section of the Bible even showed up in my post: you quoted a verse out of context, mangling its meaning in the process. I showed that you had clearly misinterpreted it. I was not citing it to show that God would never order a killing.
Second, you are once again forgetting the temporal element. It matters very much that Christ ordered the persecuted to flee, since the persecuted to whom He was speaking were
Christians, and you are wanting to bring in examples of God's orders to
Jews living hundreds of years earlier. It's as if someone said, "Do you think God will condemn people to Hell long after the judgment of everyone, when people are already living in either eternal bliss or eternal damnation?", and you chimed in, "Of course He could! Look at what He did BEFORE that!"
Mgoblue201 said:
It proves that god can order justified killings on even a war-like scale. Don't you just hate it when there's that possibility without any proof?
First, which is it? Does "it prove" something, or is it "without any proof"?
Second, the possibility of
what?
jdogmoney said:
I tried to think of an example upon which everyone is in universal agreement, but I honestly couldn't think of one.
First, I was speaking more of the concepts of right and wrong as a category of human thought, rather than of particular actions that everyone agrees on. As to the former, why should an individual who believes that some actions are right and some wrong be more likely to survive than one who has no such conception? It seems to me that a moral sense is an evolutionary liability rather than an asset. Morality functions to foreclose certain acts that the amoral individual could engage in. The apeman who is loathe to kill another apeman will not only be at a disadvantage in a conflict with an apeman who has no moral conception of killing, but in addition, and because of this, moral apemen are likely to be less successful at propagating their genes. It follows that you should expect amoral humans today to be the norm, rather than the exception.
As for specific actions that are universally regarded as wrong, I suggest murder and rape. I don't
know that they are universally regarded as wrong, but I imagine that they are, or very close to being so. Evolution would seem to favor a moral sense that killing individuals of the opposite gender is wrong, but that killing individuals of the same gender is not wrong--or positively
right. This is particularly true of males, who can reproduce virtually until death. As for rape, for obvious reasons it seems that the moral rightness of rape would be a byproduct of a morality developed by evolution. In sum, the existence of a conception of right and wrong as a category of human thought seems improbable given (mere) evolution, and the particular morality that predominates seems even more improbable.