Until you actually give a source, you're just equivocating, and this discussion isn't worth my time.
Indeed somebody probably made up the numbers. Or maybe they were too bad at keeping records in the 1800's.
The crisis in the US was precipitated due to the failure of the Jay Cooke & Company, which caused a larger banking panic.
More importantly, the cause is speculation in stocks (which indeed crashed first in Vienna), and excessive lending by state banks (which boomed during that period). Ironically, and as expected, the boom preceding the bust was caused and financed by greenbacks... or one of America's earliest attempts at a fiat currency. Funny that in trying to argue for instability under the gold standard, your best example is a crisis caused by fiat credit.
empty vessel said:
It operates on both, Sanky. Banks leverage printed money (i.e., reserves) to meet demands for money. The failure of the government to spend adequately (print money) increases the demand for private debt (bank credit). Don't you see that insufficient deficit spending empowers banks and reliance on bank money by creating an inadequate aggregate amount of fiat money?
There is a big hole in your interpretation of the private investment process in the economy, and it is due to your over-simplistic view of it. I'm starting to see a clear pattern with MMT theology. Investment money either comes from internal funds, or from borrowed funds. The market for those borrowed funds, is an interplay of projected cash flows, uncertainty about the future, lender/borrower risk aversion, interest rates, etc. The pace of investment in the private sector is what matters. This is why after 5 years and trillions of dollars printed, this non-recovery has been crap. It's because the pace of private investments is what matters. Perhaps you want to argue that the government should allocate ALL investments in an economy, but yours is an untested idea.
empty vessel said:
I'm curious what you think this means. He is talking about how the accumulation of private debt, which you are defending by maligning the spending of fiat money (even if you don't understand how you are defending it), is unstable. What you seem to be missing is that direct deficit spending is a "debt-deflation" process--Minsky is here referring to private debt deflation, not public debt deflation--because it undercuts the demand to borrow privately.
Any economy is inherently unstable, because the demand (and henceforth the supply) of money is subject to uncertainty about the future. My argument is that fiat money magnifies the speculation, and this ultimately leads to disaster. If your argument is that the government should finance 100% of the economy (therefore not needing private debt), then say it explicitly, instead of missing the point that Minsky was trying to make.
empty vessel said:
The government's spending is the non-government sector's income. This is an accounting identity.
It's only a part of the non-government sector's income. Not even half of it.
empty vessel said:
So when the government net spends more, the private sector has a higher income, meaning it has less need for inter-sector borrowing (i.e., private debt accumulation). Likewise, if the government net saves, then the non-government sector necessarily deficit spends (to the government), increasing the demand for private borrowing. Take a look at this graph:
Hehe you swear by that graph, even if it doesn't say what you think it does. The supply of money is only but one factor that influences investment in an economy, and has no real effect on output, unlike factors that determine the pace of investment. MMT takes an accounting identity of the balance of payment accounts, and comes up with a simplistic yet flawed causality between government spending, and net private savings. Keynes said, in a
Treatise on Money, that at all times, quantities of output and employment are determined by real factors independent of monetary influences. This is exactly why the Fed currently printing trillions of dollars has not affected the all important pace of investment. Velocity of money has tumbled. Unless you are talking about central planning of the economy, through which the government and finances all investment, then printing more money is quite ineffective for effecting change.
I agree with you that trade deficits are the way foreigners get their money, but to your next question, NO I would not trust the government to allocate resources effectively. The market always has the last word. Always will self-regulate.
empty vessel said:
Finally, returning to a gold standard--which necessarily puts constraints on deficit spending by the government--also necessarily increases the demand for loans and private debt. What I am trying to say in all this is that you appear to want to get to the right place (less private debt), but what you propose to do it would actually accomplish the precise opposite.
Wrong. Any amount of gold or silver will suffice to convert all the fiat money in our system. There would be a crash landing for all the paper profits and over-leveraged companies, but ultimately lending and borrowing are determined in the private sector, based on real factors. The theory behind money backed by something, is that banks will maintain a proper amount of reserves, and not over-extend credit. I would even be for a Fed that recognized a credit bubble, and actively stops it. You will be able to count on long-term price stability, and higher real wage growth, as evident by all the data so far in this thread.
I'll respond to some other comments later, but accusing the video of being some sort of advertisement for gold, completely reinforces why we as a population put up with the system.