gkrykewy said:
You just contradicted yourself. In every case, all we have is the current oldest surviving variation. The gospels were revised and amended endlessly before then, which is why researchers get excited when they find an older version of a passage that brings them closer to "Gospel 0', a hypothetical original single source. I think there's an actual name for it aside from that, but can't remember. Why would a scholar in 185 decide to invent a cute nickname out of the blue that none of his contemporaries had ever have heard of?
You say I contradict myself yet present no reason for your claim. How is it that I contradict myself?
You're referring to what they call "Gospel Q."
He wasn't writing in 185, he was born then. His writings would have been after 200 AD. We have fragments of both "Gospel Q" and John that date almost 100 years older than that, whether they are the originals or copies themselves.
Again, the only evidence we have that Mary was called this was by someone who had no connection to her. Someone who lived 2, perhaps 3 full generations later. If, as they claim, this was her proper name, why is it that the only example we have is from someone who never knew her, or in all likelihood, never knew anyone that knew her?
Why would ONE scholar choose to call her by a name no one else seems to? Why would this scholar be farther removed from her yet know her more intimately?
The point being, which evidence is BETTER evidence? Not which evidence better helps prove the point the director wants to make.
Truly, I have no dog in this fight. Christ buried or not makes no difference to me on a personal level. However, it seems that evidence closer to the source is being tossed aside while evidence further from it is being taken as fact in an effort by some to help prove the point they want proven. That, to me, just isn't sound.
Fusebox said:
No, he's assuming it's a possibility. Can't argue with that.
He presented it as a possibility, yes. Others earlier in the thread we already submitting that it had been "proven." Of course it is a possibility. There is always room for mistranslation and misunderstanding. The problem is that this chance increases with time, distance from the original source.
However, the evidence closer to the source should presumably be better. There is also more of it that seemingly correlates, as compared to one account otherwise.
Let me put it this way. Who would be more trustworthy a source, were I to take their account of your name: someone living near you, at about the same time as you, or someone living elsewhere, some 5 generations and 150 years later?